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The Necessity of Baptism
William J. Stewart
William J. Stewart is an evangelist working with the Limestone Church of Christ in Kingston, Ontario. |
I am happy for the opportunity to participate in this discussion of salvation, and specifically, the necessity of baptism. In the article which follows, it is my responsibility to provide Scriptural proof for my proposition.
PROPOSITION: The New Testament Scriptures teach that the penitent believer must be baptized in water for the remission of sins to be saved.
To be sure we are understanding one another, it is ideal to define the terms and phrases introduced in the proposition:
• New Testament Scriptures - the 27 Bible books commonly known as the New Testament;
• teach - provide instruction to be followed;
• Penitent believer - one who has both established faith in Christ as the Son of God and has a change of heart leading to the reformation of life;
• Must be - it is absolutely essential;
• Baptized in water - fully immersed in water;
• For the remission of sins - in order to have sins forgiven;
• To be saved - to have deliverance in Christ Jesus, and thus the hope of heaven.
Since we are dealing with the salvation of souls, we must consider carefully the word of God in an orderly fashion with both sincerity and sobriety. The aim of this written exchange is not to exalt or degrade either man involved, but to seek with an honest and sincere heart the will of God, and to conform to it. Thus, may both Jason and I, along with the readers of this debate lay aside any preconceived doctrinal prejudices, and wholly rely upon the word of God.
Let us now turn our attention to the Scriptures.
MARK 16:16
The very reason for our interest in this debate, whether participants or readers, is that we are concerned with what God has said about the salvation of man’s soul. Please place your finger on the word “saved” in the above text. What has Jesus placed before salvation?
In the word “believes”, the Lord has established faith as a requirement of salvation. There are many Scriptures which further state the necessity of faith (John 3:16; John 8:24; Ephesians 2:8; Hebrews 11:6). However, Jesus did not simply say, “...he who believes...will be saved...” He included a second requirement, equally important as the first, namely, baptism. Equally important, for Jesus used the conjunction “and” to bind these two prerequisites for salvation together.
When eating at a formal restaurant, men are often required to wear both a jacket and tie. Thus, it might be said, He who wears a jacket and tie will be seated, but he who does not wear a jacket will be asked to leave. What is required if you are to be seated in the restaurant? If we show up without a jacket, we will be asked to leave (as stated in the last clause). If we show up without a tie, we will be asked to leave (note, this is not expressly stated, nor does it need to be, since the positive statement in the sentence requires that we wear a tie). If we are to be seated in the restaurant, we must have both a jacket and a tie (which is the primary statement in the sentence).
What does the Lord require for the salvation of man’s soul? If we do not believe, He tells us, “...he who does not believe will be condemned.” If we are not baptized, we will be condemned (note, this is not expressly stated, nor does it need to be, since the positive statement in the verse requires that we be baptized). If we are to be saved, we must both believe and be baptized (which is the primary statement in the verse).
ACTS 2:38
Though this is a simple passage, many have twisted, misstated, and redefined Peter’s words to avoid the consequences of the text, namely, that baptism is necessary for salvation. Having confronted the Jerusalem crowd regarding their part in crucifying the Lord, Peter told them what to do for the salvation of their souls. As the Lord had done in Mark 16:16, Peter states two requirements, joining them together with the conjunctive “and”.
Peter first commanded that they “Repent...” They were to turn from the path of wickedness in which they had conducted themselves to the path of righteousness. However, Peter did not stop speaking there. He continued, “...and be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins...” Note, the command was not, Repent for the remission of sins, and then be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ... If Peter had meant that, he would have said that. Was Peter mistaken? If so, we must trash the entirety of Scripture, for he wrote as directed by the Spirit of God (2 Peter 1:20-21), as did each Bible writer.
If I tell you to sand the wood and apply a coat of varnish for a glossy finish, how should you understand my statement? If we use the same manner of reasoning that some have applied to Acts 2:38, you would thus conclude: Sand the wood for a glossy finish, and then apply a coat of varnish. Sanding the wood will provide a smooth surface, but the glossy finish is not realized until the varnish is applied. Likewise, repentance is necessary if we are to receive the remission of sins (for we will not be forgiven of our sins if we refuse to turn away from them), but the remission of sins is not realized until we have been baptized in the name of Jesus Christ.
Some will tell us that we are baptized because we have already received the remission of sins (ie. baptism is a sign that we are already saved, not unto salvation). If Acts 2:38 teaches that our sins are forgiven before baptism, then consistency demands that Matthew 26:28 teaches that our sins were forgiven before Jesus’ blood was shed. God forbid that any should take such an absurd stand.
ACTS 22:16
Luke records for us the conversion of Saul of Tarsus. Ananias was not entreating a saved man to be baptized, for he tells Saul that his sins are yet to be washed away (note, this entirely dismantles the theory that Paul was saved on the road to Damascus, for if that is the case, he was saved while still dead in his sins). Thus, Ananias encourages Saul to be baptized. What was the hurry to “...arise and be baptized...”? In so doing, he would wash away his sins, calling on the name of the Lord.
What does it mean to “...call on the name of the Lord...”? It is certainly more than a vocal cry or appeal to the Lord, for Jesus stated, “Not everyone who says to Me ‘Lord, Lord’ shall enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father in heaven.” (Matthew 7:21). Again, Jesus asked, “Why do you call Me ‘Lord, Lord’, and do not do the things that I say?” (Luke 6:46). The apostle Peter tells us that through our obedience to the Lord’s command to be baptized, we make “...an appeal to God for a good conscience...” (1 Peter 3:21, NASB). Thus, Ananias pleaded with Saul to appeal to God, commanding him to “...arise and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on the name of the Lord.”
Years later, Paul himself wrote to the brethren in Rome saying, “God be thanked that though you were slaves of sin, yet you obeyed from the heart that form of doctrine to which you were delivered.” (Romans 6:17). They did not cease to be “...slaves of sin...” until they had “...obeyed from the heart...” What doctrine does Paul refer to? The very context speaks of the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ. The “form of doctrine” is our death, burial and resurrection with the Lord through baptism (3-4).
ROMANS 6:3-4
Let me ask, when do you expect to be buried, when you are dead, or while you are still alive? It would be ludicrous to even consider being buried while we are alive. It is the dead who need to be buried, not the living. Likewise, we do not bury those who are alive in Christ, but rather those who are dead in sin.
In Romans 5:9-10, Paul writes, “Much more then, having now been justified by His blood, we shall be saved from wrath through Him. For if when we were enemies we were reconciled through the death of His Son, much more, having been reconciled, we shall be saved by His life.” Paul says explicitly that we are “...reconciled through the death of His Son...” Just fourteen verses later, Paul tells us that we “...were baptized into His death...” and again, “...we were buried with Him through baptism into death...” Where then does our reconciliation take place? Where is it that we shall contact the blood of Christ? Before we are baptized? Surely not, for then the apostle’s words are made void and false.
The apostle Paul clearly illustrates that we have a death, burial and resurrection patterned after the Lord’s own death, burial and resurrection (1 Corinthians 15:3-4; Romans 6:5). He died physically; we die to sin (Romans 6:1-3). He was buried in a tomb; we are buried in the grave of baptism (Romans 6:3-4). Coming forth from the grave, He conquered the power of death; arising from baptism, we are raised to walk in newness of life (Romans 6:4).
COLOSSIANS 2:11-13
Note from verse 13, Paul reminds those to whom he writes that they were at one time “...dead in your trespasses and the uncircumcision of your flesh...” How did they leave this dead state, in order that they might be made alive in Christ? Verse 11 tells us that they were “...circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, by putting off the body of sins of the flesh...” This “...circumcision of Christ...” is identified in verse 12 as being “...buried with Him in baptism...”
God established a covenant with Abraham, that his descendents should be circumcised in order to be in a relationship with the Lord (Genesis 17:10-14). For those who are subject to the law of Christ, the necessity of a circumcision has not changed, but the nature of the operation has. It is no longer that which is exercised by the hands of man, but a “...circumcision made without hands...” It is no longer the cutting away of the foreskin, but the “...putting off the body of sins of the flesh...” If the physical circumcision (the cutting off of the foreskin) was essential, how much more then the spiritual circumcision (the putting off the body of the sins of the flesh)?
The objection might be made, that in being baptized we are then working for our salvation, and Paul told the Ephesians that salvation was “...not of works, lest any man should boast...” (Ephesians 2:9). Consider whose work baptism is. The writer says we are “...raised with Him through faith in the working of God...” Baptism is not our work, it is God’s. We are not cutting off the “...body of the sins of the flesh...”, God is. Baptism is God’s operation to remove our sins.
1 PETER 3:18-21
Years ago, I was invited to attend a study on the topic of baptism, in which the speaker was to illustrate from the Scriptures that baptism was not necessary for salvation. At the end of his discourse, he opened the floor for any questions or comments from the audience. I asked him to read 1 Peter 3:21. He used the KJV, where the text is rendered, “...the like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God), by the resurrection of Jesus Christ.” He read, ...the like figure whereunto even baptism doth also NOT save us... Noting his error, I asked him if he might read again. He read, ...whereunto even baptism doth also NOT save us... A third time, I request that he carefully read the text, and he read, ...baptism doth also NOT save us... He did not read the text as Peter recorded it by the Spirit of God, but rather as he believed. He rejected the notion that baptism could have any part in the salvation of man’s soul, and thus substituted (without any hesitation) the word NOW with the word NOT. There is a huge difference between saying “...baptism doth also NOW save us...” (which Peter recorded), and ...baptism doth also NOT save us...
Besides illustrating a complete lack of respect for the word of God, changing Peter’s statement in this manner makes the reading of the text to be nonsense. Peter asks his reader to consider the physical salvation of Noah. He states bluntly, “...eight souls were saved through water...” Building upon this point, he then speaks of our salvation, “There is an antitype...” [NKJV], “...the like figure...” [KJV], “...after a true likeness...” [ASV], “...corresponding to that...” [NASB]. Does it make any sense for Peter to say Noah and his family were saved through water, and in like manner, we are NOT save through water? Where is the logic in that?
Our spiritual salvation is a likeness or a figure of Noah’s physical salvation. He was in danger of death (Genesis 6:13, 17); we are in danger of death (Romans 3:23; 6:23). He was saved by God (Genesis 7:16); we are saved by God (Titus 3:4-5). He was saved by grace (Genesis 6:8); we are saved by grace (Ephesians 2:8-9). He was saved by faith (Hebrews 11:7); we are saved by faith (Romans 1:16). He was saved by obedience (Hebrews 11:7); we are saved by obedience (Romans 6:17). He was saved by water (1 Peter 3:20); we are saved by water (1 Peter 3:21). It is evident that our salvation is a like figure of Noah’s.
CONCLUSION
Indeed, the Scriptures teach that faith is necessary and that without faith one cannot be saved (Hebrews 11:6). However, God has also plainly told us in His word that baptism is essential for the salvation of man’s soul. Jesus said that the one who “...believes and is baptized will be saved...” (Mark 16:16). Peter commanded men to “...be baptized for the remission of sins...” (Acts 2:38). Ananias entreated Saul to “...be baptized, washing away your sins...” (Acts 22:16). Later, Paul wrote to the Romans that we were “...buried with Him through baptism into death, that just as Christ was raised from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life.” (Romans 6:4). This same Paul told the Colossians of the need to receive the “...circumcision of Christ...” wherein God cuts off “...the body of the sins of the flesh...” (Colossians 2:11-12). And finally the apostle Peter stated outright, “...there is an antitype (like figure) which now saves us - baptism...” (1 Peter 3:21). Surely we have seen that the New Testament Scriptures teach that the penitent believer must be baptized in water for the remission of sins.
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PEACOCK’S QUESTIONS & STEWART’S ANSWERS
Question 1.
No reason leads us to believe the thief crucified along side of Jesus was baptized, in fact no reason to think he had faith in Christ...so if baptism (by water) is essential for salvation, what did Christ mean on the cross when to one of the thieves he said, “I tell you the truth today you will be with me in paradise?
Christ meant exactly what He said, the thief would be with the Lord that very day in paradise. Regarding whether or not the thief was baptized, I simply do not know. My opponent apparently believes he was not. However, consider that the thief was crucified in Jerusalem, and thus quite possibly from Judea. John baptized throughout Judea (Mark 1:5). Jesus’ disciples baptized more than John (John 4:1-3). Furthermore, he knew Jesus was Lord, and that He was coming in His kingdom (Luke 23:42). For all we know, he could have been a disciple of either John or Jesus. As easily as my opponent assumes the man was not baptized, it could be assumed that he was. We simply do not know.
However, it is of no consequence. Baptism was unnecessary for him. Baptism is commanded in the law of Christ, which was not in effect until Christ had died (Hebrews 9:16-17). Jesus promised the man paradise before His death, before His covenant came into effect. Those who desire to be ...saved like the thief... fail to note that they are subject to a different law than he (Galatians 3:15-29).
My opponent states, ...in fact no reason to think he had faith in Christ... The Scriptures plainly illustrate that this man had faith (Luke 23:39-43). However, if we follow the logic of Jason’s false assumption, shall we then conclude that faith is not essential to salvation? God forbid that we remove the necessity of anything God has required for salvation.
Question 2.
In Acts 10:44, the Gentiles received the Holy Spirit, by having faith in the gospel message Peter was preaching, they glorified God and spoke in tongues, two gifts only given to Christians. This happened prior to water baptism. If one absolutely needs baptism for salvation, why did these Gentiles receive the Holy Spirit?
Indeed, the Holy Spirit came upon the Gentiles prior to water baptism. Actually, the Spirit came upon them prior to ...having faith in the gospel message Peter was preaching... Peter explains, “...as I began to speak, the Holy Spirit fell upon them...” (Acts 11:15). They did not have faith in the gospel message until after they had heard the gospel (Acts 15:7). Is Jason willing to teach that one is saved before faith and before baptism, so long as they are capable of speaking in tongues? If speaking in a tongue is evidence that one is saved, then I suppose we ought to conclude that Balaam’s donkey was a Christian (Numbers 22:28, 30).
The Holy Spirit was poured out on the household of Cornelius, not as evidence of salvation, but as divine proof that the Gentiles too were accepted by God (Acts 11:15-18, 34-35; 15:7-9). Seeing that the Spirit had come upon them, Peter could not forbid water (Acts 10:47-48), but commanded that they put on Christ in like manner as the Jews (Galatians 3:26-29).
Jason J. Peacock responds to William J. Stewart.
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